Friday, May 10, 2013

Apologies for Delay In Comment Moderation

Hi all:

Some kind of a glitch has resulted in a number of comments being tied up until suddenly showing up this morning.

They should all be up now, except for one.

I address the author of the one:

Lionel, I am informed that you took private correspondence and posted it publicly. I do not participate in this.

My post on the question can be found here:

http://magisterialfundies.blogspot.com/2012/08/a-question-concerning-salvation.html

If you want to interact with my post, you can do so there.

3 comments:

  1. Hi Rick,

    What are your thoughts on Baptism of Desire? Does the following article change your thinking expressed above? - see http://www.catholicessentials.net/baptismofdesire.htm

    Kind regards
    Lawrence Myers
    8 June 2013

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  2. This comment has been removed by the author.

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  3. Sorry, a few typos necessitate this repost:

    Lawrence, I believe the following de fide definition of the dogma concerning justification from the Council of Trent:

    "In which words is given a brief description of the justification of the sinner, as being a translation from that state in which man is born a child of the first Adam, to the state of grace and of the adoption of the sons of God through the second Adam, Jesus Christ, our Savior.

    This translation however cannot, since promulgation of the Gospel, be effected except through the laver of regeneration or its desire, as it is written:

    Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.[18]"

    Please notive that it is *impossible* to be justified apart from baptism of the desire for it; that is, one cannot be justified- translated from the condition of child of Adam to child of God- apart from baptism or the desire for it.

    *It*.

    Your link teaches that some vague notion of wishing to please God is sufficient.

    This directly contradicts the Catholic Faith.

    Hope my position is clear.

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